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[sutucon]

Types of wired home networks include all of the following except _____.
a. Ethernet c. powerline cable
b. Wi-Fi d. phoneline

[CED]

Chắc là câu
b. Wi-Fi

[tqminh_csp]

Fall 2005 Test3 Name: _________________________

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A type of communications device that connects a communications channel to a sending or receiving device is a _____.
a. modem c. PDA
b. server d. all of the above


____ 2. _____ is a real-time Internet communication service that allows wireless mobile devices to exchange messages with one or more mobile devices or online users.
a. A chat room c. MMS
b. Wireless instant message d. Voice mail


____ 3. Most hot spots span from _____ feet.
a. 10-30 c. 100-300
b. 30-100 d. 300-1500


____ 4. A voice mailbox is a(n) _____ in a voice mail system.
a. storage location on a hard disk c. processor
b. input device d. output device


____ 5. A _____ is a legal agreement that permits users to install software on multiple computers, usually at a volume discount.
a. network license c. peer license
b. server license d. site license


____ 6. Each computer or device on a local area network, called a _____, often shares resources such as printers, large hard disks, and programs.
a. hub c. token
b. server d. node


____ 7. A _____ is a high-speed network that connects networks in an area such as a city or town and handles the bulk of communications activity across that region.
a. local area network (LAN) c. wide area network (WAN)
b. metropolitan area network (MAN) d. variable area network (VAN)


____ 8. The design of computers, devices, and media in a network, sometimes called the _____, is categorized as either client/server or peer-to-peer.
a. network topology c. network standard
b. network architecture d. network protocol


____ 9. On a _____, all of the computers and devices (nodes) on the network connect to a central device.
a. bus network c. star network
b. ring network d. token ring network


____ 10. On a network such as the one illustrated in the accompanying figure, the central device that provides a common connection point for nodes on the network is called the _____.
a. Hub c. printer
b. personal computer d. file server


____ 11. One popular use of the _____ standard is in public Internet access points that offer mobile users the ability to connect to the Internet with their wireless computers and devices.
a. Ethernet c. TCP/IP
b. token ring d. Wi-Fi



____ 12. Although _____ are not a type of standard telephone line, they are very popular ways for the home user to connect to the Internet.
a. ISDN lines c. T-carrier lines
b. DSL d. cable television (CATV) lines


____ 13. The most popular T-carrier line is the _____.
a. T1 line c. T3 line
b. T2 line d. T4 line


____ 14. A _____ is a device that provides a central point for cables in a network.
a. Hub c. node
b. Packet d. router


____ 15. A networked computer in a house can _____.
a. share a single high-speed Internet connection
b. access files and programs on other computers in the house
c. share peripherals such as a printer, scanner, external hard disk, or DVD drive
d. all of the above


____ 16. Types of wired home networks include all of the following except _____.
a. Ethernet c. powerline cable
b. Wi-Fi d. phoneline


____ 17. Fiber-optic cables have all of the following advantages over cables that use wire except _____.
a. lower costs and easier installation and modification
b. faster data transmission and smaller size
c. less susceptible to noise from other devices
d. better security for signals during transmission


____ 18. Broadcast radio is _____ susceptible to noise than physical transmission media but it provides flexibility and portability.
a. slower and more c. faster and more
b. slower and less d. faster and less


____ 19. Accurate information _____.
a. is error free
b. has meaning to the person who receives it
c. is available when a decision maker needs it
d. has an age suited to its use


____ 20. Organized information _____.
a. is error free
b. is arranged to suit the needs and requirements of a decision maker
c. can be proven as correct or incorrect
d. has an age suited to its use


____ 21. Accessible information _____.
a. gives more value than it costs to produce
b. has meaning to the person who receives it
c. is available when a decision maker needs it
d. has an age suited to its use


____ 22. _____ is a common data type that consists of dollar and cent amounts or numbers containing decimal values.
a. AutoNumber c. Currency
b. Text d. Object


____ 23. _____ is a common data type that consists of lengthy text entries.
a. Numeric c. Object
b. Memo d. Date



____ 24. Generally, users change records in a file _____.
a. when they obtain new data and to correct inaccurate data
b. to correct inaccurate data and to update old data with new data
c. to update old data with new data and when a record no longer is needed
d. when a record no longer is needed and when they obtain new data


____ 25. _____, a user deletes it from a file.
a. To correct inaccurate data c. To update old data with new data
b. When new data is obtained d. When a record no longer is needed


____ 26. A(n) _____ verifies that a required field contains data.
a. range check c. consistency check
b. completeness check d. alphabetic/numeric check


____ 27. A program determines the _____ by applying a formula to the numbers in the primary key value.
a. data type c. field size
b. check digit d. default value


____ 28. When compared with a file processing system, a database offers all of the following except _____.
a. reduced data redundancy
b. easier access and shared data
c. reduced development time
d. less required memory, storage, and processing power


____ 29. A DBMS uses the _____ to perform validation checks.
a. data server c. data warehouse
b. data mart d. data dictionary


____ 30. Although a query language can be used for other purposes, most users only _____ data with a query language.
a. retrieve c. change
b. add d. delete


____ 31. A checkout clerk with _____ privileges to the e-mail addresses in a discount warehouse database could view the addresses but not change them.
a. read-only c. full-update
b. write-only d. no access


____ 32. A manager would have _____ privileges to member data in a discount warehouse database.
a. read-only c. full-update
b. write-only d. no access


____ 33. In a log, a DBMS places _____.
a. a copy of a record prior to a change c. a copy of a record after a change
b. the actual change to a record d. all of the above


____ 34. Popular data models in use today include all of the following except _____.
a. relational c. object-oriented
b. hierarchical d. multidimensional


____ 35. In a relational database, each row _____.
a. and each column has a primary key
b. has a unique name and each column has a primary key
c. has a primary key and each column has a unique name
d. and each column has a unique name


____ 36. In a relational database, a _____ of referential integrity is a connection within the data.
a. table c. row
b. column d. relationship



____ 37. _____ is a process designed to ensure the data within the relations (tables) in a relational database contains the least amount of duplication.
a. Normalization c. Validation
b. Modeling d. Querying


____ 38. Most _____ database products for midrange servers and mainframes include SQL.
a. relational c. multidimensional
b. object-oriented d. all of the above


____ 39. A _____ stores documents such as schedules, calendars, manuals, memos, and reports.
a. multimedia database c. computer-aided design (CAD) database
b. groupware database d. hypertext database


____ 40. Many e-commerce sites use _____ to determine customer preferences.
a. data checking c. data sorting
b. data mining d. data serving

____ 41. A(n) __________ is a collection of data organized in a manner that allows access, retrieval, and use of that data.
a. file management system c. integrated system
b. database management system d. database


____ 42. A field that uniquely identifies a particular record in a table is called a _________ key.
a. secondary c. principal
b. primary d. foreign


____ 43. To move from the upper pane, the one where fields are defined, in the Table window to the lower pane, the one where field properties are defined, press the __________ key.
a. F8 c. F6
b. F7 d. F5


____ 44. Table names can be no more than _________ characters in length and can contain letters, numbers, and spaces.
a. 32 c. 128
b. 64 d. 256


____ 45. If the Customer table is represented as a collection of rows and columns, then the table is displaying in __________ view.
a. Table c. Datasheet
b. Tablesheet d. Worksheet


____ 46. To change to landscape orientation to print a table, right-click the report in the Print Preview window and then click __________ on the shortcut menu.
a. Page Setup c. Print Orientation
b. Print Settings d. Page Format


____ 47. __________ view displays a single record at a time.
a. Datasheet c. Form
b. Screen d. Record


____ 48. To create a form, select the table for the form in the Database window, click the New Object: AutoForm button arrow on the toolbar, and then click __________ in the list that displays.
a. AutoForm c. AutoScreen
b. FormView d. ScreenView


____ 49. In the Access Help system, the __________ is similar to the Office Assistant in that it answers questions that you type in your own words.
a. Contents sheet c. Index sheet
b. Ask a Question box d. Locate sheet


____ 50. __________ is a special technique for identifying and eliminating redundancy.
a. Consistency c. Iteration
b. Replication d. Normalization

Đây có phải là toàn bộ đáp án của bài thi không ?

1. ANS: A DIF: P REF: 461 OBJ: 2
2. ANS: B DIF: P REF: 463 OBJ: 3
3. ANS: C DIF: S REF: 464 OBJ: 3
4. ANS: A DIF: P REF: 468 OBJ: 3
5. ANS: D DIF: S REF: 470 OBJ: 4
6. ANS: D DIF: S REF: 471 OBJ: 5
7. ANS: B DIF: S REF: 472 OBJ: 5
8. ANS: B DIF: S REF: 472 OBJ: 5
9. ANS: C DIF: S REF: 475 OBJ: 5
10. ANS: A DIF: S REF: 475 OBJ: 5
11. ANS: D DIF: P REF: 478 OBJ: 6
12. ANS: D DIF: P REF: 482 OBJ: 8
13. ANS: A DIF: S REF: 483 OBJ: 8
14. ANS: A DIF: S REF: 488 OBJ: 9
15. ANS: D DIF: P REF: 489 OBJ:10
16. ANS: B DIF: S REF: 489 OBJ:10
17. ANS: A DIF: P REF: 493 OBJ:11
18. ANS: A DIF: P REF: 494 OBJ:11
19. ANS: A DIF: S REF: 516 OBJ: 2
20. ANS: B DIF: S REF: 516 OBJ: 2
21. ANS: C DIF: S REF: 516 OBJ: 2
22. ANS: C DIF: P REF: 518 OBJ: 4
23. ANS: B DIF: P REF: 518 OBJ: 4
24. ANS: B DIF: P REF: 521 OBJ: 5
25. ANS: D DIF: P REF: 522 OBJ: 5
26. ANS: B DIF: S REF: 523 OBJ: 5
27. ANS: B DIF: S REF: 523 OBJ: 5
28. ANS: D DIF: P REF: 526 OBJ: 7
29. ANS: D DIF: P REF: 527 OBJ: 7
30. ANS: A DIF: P REF: 528 OBJ: 7
31. ANS: A DIF: S REF: 531 OBJ: 7
32. ANS: C DIF: S REF: 531 OBJ: 7
33. ANS: D DIF: P REF: 531 OBJ: 7
34. ANS: B DIF: P REF: 532 OBJ: 8
35. ANS: C DIF: P REF: 533 OBJ: 8
36. ANS: D DIF: P REF: 533 OBJ: 8
37. ANS: A DIF: S REF: 534 OBJ: 8
38. ANS: A DIF: P REF: 534 OBJ: 8
39. ANS: B DIF: S REF: 534 OBJ: 8
40. ANS: B DIF: S REF: 536 OBJ: 8
41. D 42. B 43. C 44. B 45. C
46. A 47. C 48. A 49. B 50. D